this post was submitted on 17 Oct 2023
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[–] Gork@lemm.ee 50 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) (4 children)

Does the sequence go N girls, N-1 cups? Or N number of girls sharing only 2 cups?

I need to know how this scales as the number of girls and cups grow larger.

[–] Darorad@lemmy.world 27 points 1 year ago (1 children)

I think N/2 would make the most sense

[–] Zehzin@lemmy.world 13 points 1 year ago (2 children)
[–] phuntis@sopuli.xyz 12 points 1 year ago (1 children)
[–] itslilith@lemmy.blahaj.zone 16 points 1 year ago (1 children)
[–] Swedneck@discuss.tchncs.de 12 points 1 year ago

in this economy you need a cupmate to afford the rent on even the tiniest of cups

[–] quantenzitrone@feddit.de 3 points 1 year ago

⌊n/2⌋ cups

[–] Hadriscus@lemm.ee 19 points 1 year ago (1 children)

this stuff is so much easier to figure out with one man one jar

[–] Donkter@lemmy.world 12 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Under capitalism, every man gets a jar.

[–] FlightyPenguin@lemmy.world 7 points 1 year ago

Under capitalism, nobody is given a jar; jars are "earned". One man owns the jar factory and most of the jars.

[–] errer@lemmy.world 12 points 1 year ago

Always just one cup for any N girls

[–] complacent_jerboa@lemmy.world 10 points 1 year ago (1 children)

AFAIK it scales at a 2:1 ratio. n girls means n/2 cups.

[–] GoodEye8@lemm.ee 2 points 1 year ago (1 children)
[–] complacent_jerboa@lemmy.world 2 points 1 year ago

Well actually this is a discrete math thing, so if we let n be the number of girls, and f(n) be the number of cups, then f(n) = n/2, but only such that n = 2k, where k is an integer.