Your house or your home? It feels right that it would be based on occupancy rather than ownership. What if someone was staying with you and you gave them a room in a shared house - the vampire could potentially get into the main house but then not enter that particular room?

[–] AssortedBiscuits@hexbear.net 4 points 5 hours ago

It's mediated through societal convention like how a man cave or the garage "belongs" to the husband even though ownership of those two room is actually determined by who owns the deed of the house in which the rooms are located in. A cool edge case would be if the vampire gets invitation from the husband but the husband and wife immediately have a big fight afterwards, perhaps over inviting a vampire over, and agreed to divorce with the husband and wife doing the thing long-term couples that break up do of partitioning their home and sleeping in their own partition (ie the man sleeping on the couch). Does the vampire still has have access to the whole house or are they now restricted to just the husband's partition of the house?

[–] RedWizard@hexbear.net 5 points 7 hours ago

I think that's the correct distinction. They need an invitation into the home. A house is a dead object void of humanity, a home isn't. A house can either be uninhabited or inhabited, but a home is only ever inhabited. Even though the landlord owns the property and it's house, it isn't their home.