this post was submitted on 08 Dec 2025
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[–] PabloSexcrowbar@piefed.social 74 points 1 month ago (3 children)

I'm gonna get the shit downvoted out of me for this, but the problem with this idea is that insular communities tend to redefine words and then expect everyone outside their bubble to know their new definition. Doing so also robs the language of a word that served a specific purpose, such as in the case of the word "literally."

[–] antonim@lemmy.dbzer0.com 18 points 1 month ago (1 children)

And then the speakers from insular communities get told to fuck off with their special definitions, or they're so persistent that the new definition catches on. Either way, problem solved.

The word "literally" still serves its old purpose just fine, along with the new one.

[–] PabloSexcrowbar@piefed.social 14 points 1 month ago (4 children)

My issue with "literally" is that it's become an actual part of the dictionary definition rather than being recognized as merely a hyperbolic use of the word.

[–] yesman@lemmy.world 34 points 1 month ago (2 children)

Dictionaries are books of history, not law.

Language pedantry is a branch of theology.

[–] otter@lemmy.dbzer0.com 9 points 1 month ago

Those two sentences are not mutually exclusive.

[–] lastunusedusername2@sh.itjust.works 6 points 1 month ago (1 children)

But every word can be used hyperbolically.

[–] commie@lemmy.dbzer0.com 0 points 1 month ago (1 children)

no, it can't. hyperbole means to exaggerate, to a great degree. descriptors like "round" or "soft" can't be hyperbolic.

[–] nondescripthandle@lemmy.dbzer0.com 5 points 1 month ago (3 children)

Calling fat people round is hyperbole isn't it?

[–] Kraven_the_Hunter@lemmy.dbzer0.com 3 points 1 month ago* (last edited 1 month ago)

Or calling a bald guy "Curly"

[–] commie@lemmy.dbzer0.com 1 points 1 month ago

no, it's either true or false, but even a false usage isn't hyperbolic, it's just wrong

[–] athatet@lemmy.zip 1 points 1 month ago

It really depends on how they are built. I have deffo seen some rounder obese people.

[–] antonim@lemmy.dbzer0.com 14 points 1 month ago

Dictionaries can also note hyperbolic (and other "deformed") uses of words, especially when commonplace, I see no problem with that. You have some odd expectations from dictionaries.

[–] Honytawk@feddit.nl 5 points 1 month ago

A dictionary is a record.

Language influences the dictionary, the dictionary doesn't influence language.

[–] Digit@lemmy.wtf 1 points 1 month ago (1 children)

Did that literally happen?

Or has actual fallen foul of another meaning change too now?

[–] PabloSexcrowbar@piefed.social 1 points 1 month ago

It's a definition in Merriam-Webster as of several years ago.

[–] MisterFrog@lemmy.world 3 points 1 month ago

My pet example is Americans and "ironically/unironically".

Please don't do this to me

[–] Speiser0@feddit.org 1 points 1 month ago (3 children)

Didn't english literally develop in an insular community (britain)?

[–] sylver_dragon@lemmy.world 7 points 1 month ago

English is what you get when a community can't defend its borders and keeps being taken over by new rulers with a different language, which then works its way partly into common usage. Also, random word borrowing, because fuck you it's ours now.

[–] Lumidaub@feddit.org 4 points 1 month ago (1 children)

Not insular enough to be isolated, hence that saying about it being three languages in a trenchcoat.

[–] Speiser0@feddit.org 2 points 1 month ago

Of course not isolated, but insular, literally.

[–] Digit@lemmy.wtf 2 points 1 month ago

There were a lot more langauges on those isles long before and during the [still ongoing] development of english, and during the empire connecting to more of the world more than any other in history... so, not so insular during its development.