this post was submitted on 08 Dec 2025
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[–] PabloSexcrowbar@piefed.social 14 points 1 month ago (4 children)

My issue with "literally" is that it's become an actual part of the dictionary definition rather than being recognized as merely a hyperbolic use of the word.

[–] yesman@lemmy.world 34 points 1 month ago (2 children)

Dictionaries are books of history, not law.

Language pedantry is a branch of theology.

[–] otter@lemmy.dbzer0.com 9 points 1 month ago

Those two sentences are not mutually exclusive.

[–] lastunusedusername2@sh.itjust.works 6 points 1 month ago (1 children)

But every word can be used hyperbolically.

[–] commie@lemmy.dbzer0.com 0 points 1 month ago (1 children)

no, it can't. hyperbole means to exaggerate, to a great degree. descriptors like "round" or "soft" can't be hyperbolic.

[–] nondescripthandle@lemmy.dbzer0.com 5 points 1 month ago (3 children)

Calling fat people round is hyperbole isn't it?

[–] Kraven_the_Hunter@lemmy.dbzer0.com 3 points 1 month ago* (last edited 1 month ago)

Or calling a bald guy "Curly"

[–] athatet@lemmy.zip 1 points 1 month ago

It really depends on how they are built. I have deffo seen some rounder obese people.

[–] commie@lemmy.dbzer0.com 1 points 1 month ago

no, it's either true or false, but even a false usage isn't hyperbolic, it's just wrong

[–] antonim@lemmy.dbzer0.com 14 points 1 month ago

Dictionaries can also note hyperbolic (and other "deformed") uses of words, especially when commonplace, I see no problem with that. You have some odd expectations from dictionaries.

[–] Honytawk@feddit.nl 5 points 1 month ago

A dictionary is a record.

Language influences the dictionary, the dictionary doesn't influence language.

[–] Digit@lemmy.wtf 1 points 1 month ago (1 children)

Did that literally happen?

Or has actual fallen foul of another meaning change too now?

[–] PabloSexcrowbar@piefed.social 1 points 1 month ago

It's a definition in Merriam-Webster as of several years ago.