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Kansas supreme court rules state constitution does not provide the right to vote
(www.theguardian.com)
this post was submitted on 03 Jun 2024
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Given all those references to the right to vote, does that not obviously show that there is a right to vote? And that the right shall not be denied for those reasons? Sort of an "exception proves the rule" sort of thing.
It does seem that there is an implicit right to vote, but not an explicit one. Which is why I mentioned the Privileges and Immunities clause, if there is a Constitutional right to vote, it likely derives from there. But, being implicit, rather than explicit, means that it falls to judicial review to codify it. It's also not as solidly guaranteed. Unlike say, the right to assemble, there is no specific text you can point to and say, "this bit of text, right here, says it." So, it wouldn't be surprising to see any such decision overturned later on (see: Dobbs decision).