this post was submitted on 06 Oct 2023
78 points (100.0% liked)

196

16493 readers
1889 users here now

Be sure to follow the rule before you head out.

Rule: You must post before you leave.

^other^ ^rules^

founded 1 year ago
MODERATORS
moss@lemmy.blahaj.zone
greembow@lemmy.blahaj.zone
moss@lemmy.world
queue@beehaw.org
funky_rodent@lemmy.blahaj.zone
PeachyMcPeachface@lemmy.blahaj.zone
threegnomes@lemmy.blahaj.zone
greembow@lemmy.world
remotelove@lemmy.ca
Roflmasterbigpimp@feddit.de
qaz@lemmy.world
A_Very_Big_Fan@lemm.ee
qaz@lemmy.blahaj.zone
qaz@lemmy.ca
A_Very_Big_Fan@lemmy.world
qaz@lemmy.dbzer0.com
Qaz@lemmy.ml
qaz@sh.itjust.works
qaz@lemmy.sdf.org
78
Leibnitz Integral [rule] (feddit.de)
submitted 1 year ago by theFibonacciEffect@feddit.de to c/196@lemmy.blahaj.zone
3 comments fedilink hide all child comments
 
you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments
[–] lgstarn@kbin.social 2 points 1 year ago

For number 4 (or maybe a new number), if a(x) and b(x) are constant, the derivatives d/dx a(x) and d/dx b(x) are zero, so all that is left is that d/dx becomes a partial derivative and can move inside the integral.