this post was submitted on 04 Oct 2023
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[–] lorez@lemm.ee 1 points 2 years ago (3 children)

Vice in the expression vice versa has to be pronounced in Latin, not as in vice, I have a vice.

[–] InevitableSwing@hexbear.net 5 points 2 years ago (1 children)

In American English vise (the clamp) is pronounced "vahys" and the vice in vice versa is pronounced the same.

British English? I have no idea.

[–] lorez@lemm.ee 1 points 2 years ago

No, not vise. Vice. Like the vice of drinking, etc. Vice in the expression vice versa is a Latin word and like versa needs to be pronounced in Latin.

[–] HumanBehaviorByBjork@hexbear.net 3 points 2 years ago* (last edited 2 years ago) (1 children)

yeah, but no english speaker who isn't a nerd pronounces latin words right anyway. if someone dropped wee-kay wehr-sa in the middle of an english sentence i would look at them like they're insane.

[–] lorez@lemm.ee 1 points 2 years ago (1 children)

Which is weird cos you pronounce versa correctly.

i don't think they should be saying it like that either!

[–] Shinhoshi@lemmygrad.ml 2 points 2 years ago* (last edited 2 years ago) (1 children)

I’ve never heard an American say “versa” the correct Latin pronunciation when saying it — I’m pretty sure this entire phrase has changed to an Anglicized pronunciation in the US

[–] lorez@lemm.ee 2 points 2 years ago

Well, versa sounds much much closer to what should be. Vice, they are just taking the English word.