Chapotraphouse

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Banned? DM Wmill to appeal.

No anti-nautilism posts. See: Eco-fascism Primer

Slop posts go in c/slop. Don't post low-hanging fruit here.

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submitted 3 weeks ago by vegeta1@hexbear.net to c/chapotraphouse@hexbear.net

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[–] Trying2KnowMyself@hexbear.net 16 points 3 weeks ago (1 children)

But if it goes down by 50 and then up by 50 it's still the same, even in ~~evil commie foreign~~ "%" ~~dollars~~.

Strike the evil commie parts and I have heard this word for word. doggirl-gloom

“If you’re talking about 50% of the original value in both cases, yes, but not when you’re talking about a decrease followed by an increase”

And I’ve solidly lost them.

[–] StalinIsMaiWaifu@lemmygrad.ml 12 points 3 weeks ago (1 children)

Percentages are multiplicative, not addative, so if you go down 50 and then up 50 (or vice versa) you end up at 75% of the original value.

Equation would be original value * (1 + % ÷ 100)

So if we start with 1, 1 * (1-50/100) = .5 .5 * (1+50/100) =.75

In simplified fractions, 1 * 1/2 * 3/2= 3/4

[–] Trying2KnowMyself@hexbear.net 12 points 3 weeks ago

I know. Far too many people I’ve had exactly this conversation with don’t seem to be able to grasp that, though, no matter how I present it to them.