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72% of Americans Say the Rich 'Have Too Much' as GOP Pursues Another Handout for Billionaires
(www.commondreams.org)
this post was submitted on 20 Jun 2025
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The rich have too much by definition, but billionaires in America have an historically obscene amount of wealth. Wealth inequality in today’s America has surpassed pre-Revolution France.
Why is rich too much? Why can't we all be rich?
It is a zero sum game. The rich are addicted to power over others despite data showing that even they would be happier in a more equitable society (see TED talk by Richard Wilkinson called "Spirit Level").
It's not a zero sum game. If someone is unemployed, they become employed and create some goods or services, they both can spend more money and the business can sell it for more money than they pay out as salary
So you have created wealth that didn't exist before. It is possible for everyone to be rich, provided we automate enough tasks that nobody is wasting time on menial labor
The money supply is fixed. Government prints money but not to cover new jobs. It is all about transfer of wealth.
We could all be moderately wealthy if Billionaires were not a thing. Basic Income is perhaps feasible too.
Economist Gary Stevenson explains it well. He has over a million views of each video on YouTube.
He is working class as fuck but graduated from LSE & Oxford and then made millions since 2008 betting that inequality will rise and that most people will be worse off. He was the most successful trader for Citibank but quit in disgust and to reveal the scam to the public. Now with a best-selling book.
https://youtu.be/BRvMuefnl0k
The government lowers interest rates to increase economic growth and when the inflation is low. Lending increases the money supply because banks are not required to have full reserves. So yes, the Fed actually increases the effective money supply at the correct rate depending on whether they want the economy to grow or to control inflation
The supply in circulation. Bonds are promissory notes. I don't think the money disappears from ledgers.
The fractional reserve is fixed AFAIK.
Circulation doesn't matter. Let me give you adb example.
Let's say my mom sells her house. The buyer takes out a loan from the bank. My mom gets $300,000 in cash to her bank account, the buyer loses 20% down payment so he's down $60,000. The bank reserves 10% which is $24,000
Suddenly the economy just got a boost of $300,000 - $60,000 - $24,000 = $216,000
When my mom spends that money, it goes to the bank accounts of businesses so it just stays as numbers. Nobody needs to take any cash out, but everyone gets richer
Am no expert but didn't the money come from the banks virtual reserves? In which case the total money in the economy hasn't changed.
Before the house purchase it would have been in other investments, no?
No, because they are allowed to do partial reserves. I assumed a reserve ratio of 10:1
OK, thanks but then that raises another question: Doesn't expanding the money supply devalue the dollar?
Yes, that's why the Fed in raising the interest rates actually lowers inflation