But, the Bible says he died at age 34.
Also, no one fucking knows. At all. It's all stories written long after the facts, and the "facts" were as likely just fiction.
It's all bullshit.
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But, the Bible says he died at age 34.
Also, no one fucking knows. At all. It's all stories written long after the facts, and the "facts" were as likely just fiction.
It's all bullshit.
Adapted along the time to please the people in power
Nah, he walked over water and everything and it was great. I guess you had to be there.
I heard he walked on the water and then the water turned to wine and then they made babies and I saw one of the babies and the baby looked at me!
It's one of the black-and-white irreconcilable contradictions in the Bible. The gospel traditionally attributed to Matthew puts Jesus birth during the reign of Herod the Great, who died in 4 BCE. The gospel traditionally attributed to Luke puts Jesus birth during the census of Quirinius. Quirinius wasn't Herod's successor, he was Herod's successor's successor, and his reign didn't begin until around 6 CE. The other canonical gospels don't have nativity accounts.
I also like how Jesus has two different lineages depending on which gospel you read. Apologists try to say one of them is about Mary's parents and not Joseph's, but the text is explicit.
Matthew 1: "Jacob begot Joseph, the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus..."
Luke 3: "Jesus himself was about thirty years old when he began his ministry. He was the son, so it was thought, of Joseph, the son of Heli."
So was Joseph's father Jacob, or Heli?
There are many more. The bible is literally unbelievable. Chapter 2 lists a different creation order from chapter 1. Anyone claiming it contains no contradictions is drinking the kool-aid. It would be funny if people weren't dying for it.
This feels like one of those riddles where the answer is that the doctor is a woman. Today, Heli is considered a feminine name.
However, the biblical figure was male.
A slightly longer quote from the verse makes that clearer
Jesus was about thirty years old when he began his work. He was the son (as was thought) of Joseph son of Heli, son of Matthat, son of Levi [...]
My understanding is that any sort of a census of the sort described in Luke (requiring males to return to the towns of their birth for registration) probably did not actually occur, as it would have created impractical logistical issues.
searches
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Census_of_Quirinius
Most critical biblical scholars agree that the Gospel of Luke is erroneous.[10] Its author seems to have invoked the census as Joseph and Mary's motivation for departing "their own city"[11] of Nazareth, Galilee, for Bethlehem.[12][13][14] Additionally, the author may have wished to contrast Joseph and Mary's obedience to the Roman edict with the rebelliousness of the Zealots, and also to find a prophetic fulfilment of Psalm 87:6: "In the census of the peoples, [princes] will be born there."[12][b][c] (Luke and Matthew also give different accounts of the family's departure from Bethlehem.)[17][d] Catholic priest and biblical scholar Joseph Fitzmyer states:[20]
It is clear that the census is a purely literary device used by him to associate Mary and Joseph, residents of Nazareth, with Bethlehem, the town of David, because he knows of a tradition, also attested in Matthew 2, that Jesus was also born in Bethlehem. He is also aware of a tradition about the birth of Jesus in the days of Herod, as is Matthew; Luke's form of the tradition, unlike Matthew's, tied the birth in a vague way to a time of political disturbance associated with a census.
Scholars point out that there was no single census of the entire Roman Empire under Augustus and the Romans did not directly tax client kingdoms; further, no Roman census required that people travel from their own homes to those of their ancestors. A census of Judaea would not have affected Joseph and his family, who lived in Galilee under a different ruler; the revolt of Judas of Galilee suggests that Rome's direct taxation of Judaea was new at the time.[21] Catholic priest and biblical scholar Raymond E. Brown postulates that Judas's place of origin may have led the author of Luke to think that Galilee was subject to the census.[22][e] Brown also points out that in the Acts of the Apostles, Luke the Evangelist (the traditional author of both books) dates Judas's census-incited revolt as following the rebellion of Theudas, which took place four decades later.[22][f][g] Protestant theologian and biblical scholar E. P. Sanders concedes that, because revolts followed both Herod's death and the census, Luke's author may have "decided to elaborate the event [as] a reason for Joseph to travel ... to Bethlehem", calling this "a relatively slight historical error for an ancient author".[8]
Also Luke was written ~20 years after Matthew. The oldest copy of Matthew 1-16 predates our oldest copies of the other gospels by a long time IIRC. Kind of circumstantial but it is indirect evidence that the Matthew account might be older and less embellished.
Just picking a small nit: Matthew is not considered the oldest gospel, Mark is. There may be fragments of Matthew that are the oldest, but it is generally agreed that the writer of Matthew was influenced by the already-written gospel of Mark. Luke was written around the same time as Matthew, or a few (5-10) years later.
It's an early form of a 419 scammer's typo-riddled email or letter. Filter out anyone who pays attention to inconsistencies and you can squeeze some easy money from the gullible leftovers.
There's also a lot of stuff that's not meant to be taken literally. The text is full of similes and metaphors that are a lot less clear today than they were at time of writing. For example, many numbers in there are just used to convey a vague ~~serve~~ sense of size. Sometimes concrete numbers just mean "many", which was well-understood back then.
On top of that we have later edits for various reasons and assorted other sources of imprecision. The Bible makes a lot more sense as a book that's not meant to be taken literally in it's entirety. Of course figuring out what's really meant isn't very easy all this time later.
Plus what you pointed out. That's also in there, probably especially by means of edits.
So on average our calendar is mostly close enough
He was probably an amalgamation of many mystics and prophets.
What's more likely? That his story is historically factually written, decades after his death, by a myriad collection of sources, people that also wrote "Holy books" during the same period that were rejected by Christianity as a whole? (like the apocrypha and Gnosticism).
Or that he's a loose combination of many different holy men, which were pretty common at the time?
Or that He was the super-powered son of God, and there was a total eclipse for hours after His crucifixion that nobody else noticed, and He promised that He would come back in His apostle's lifetime, but then He forgot for 2,000 years?
hOW dARe yOu jEsUs wAs a WHiTe AmERiCaN mAn anD thE BIbLe IS tHE wORd Of GOD!!!
Oh, and a fun story about the crucifixion darkness.
So in Luke, the easiest copies described as the sun being eclipsed. Which was a huge controversy. Origen claimed it was the work of "agents of Satan."
Why? Because the Passover occurs on a full moon and solar eclipses cannot happen at those times.
What can happen are lunar eclipses. In fact they are pretty common on Passover. And those actually match a lot of the details. Last for hours and not minutes. Seen around the world vs a small band.
The problem is that this was in the middle of the day, so it would not have been visible in the area.
What a lot of people don't know is that at the time this was written, people knew how to calculate eclipses in the same Saros cycle. The Greeks even built a clockwork computer centuries earlier that did so.
As well, at the time the leading explanation was the (correct) one that lunar eclipses occurred because the Earth eclipsed the sun. Lucretius in 50 BCE wrote that it was so common it was basically presumed and he was encouraging keeping a more open mind for alternative explanations.
And there was a historical lunar eclipse on Passover in 33 CE, which would not have been visible in Judea. But importantly, this eclipse was in the same Saros cycle as visible lunar eclipses before and after.
It is not all that implausible that people, particularly Greek or Chaldean astronomers, would have known that there was a several hour long eclipse of the sun during the day on Passover in 33 CE.
My guess is that knowledge of a calculated lunar eclipse ended up incorporated into the early Synoptic circles (potentially even by the author of Luke given the mention of the Joel blood moon prophecy in Acts) and then further mythologized having lost the original context as if an eyewitness event like in Matthew where the author added earthquakes and zombies.
TL;DR: There probably was a daytime lunar eclipse on a Passover around that time which would have been fairly trivially calculable as having occurred given its earlier and later 51 CE visible occurrences in the cycle.
Edit: Some relevant links.
The "best" is dating events in Holy-Roman era books. Aside from the variable of several years, then there's also that some sects date from "birth" others "baptism" or "death".
Further, each time the book got hand copied, you've no idea whether that monk copied verbatim dates OR believed (possibly wrongly) that the prior copy was dating heretically, and took the liberty of "correcting" it.
So several iterations along, book could be stating a century off...
And its pretty much impossible to pin all the stories in the various gospels to any single individual reliably. And the younger he gets, the more nebulous and fuzzy the stories are.
Historians also have a rule for any historical figure that we are unsure if they really existed, if that person also has lots of stories about him involving magic or him personally doing anything supernatural, ya that guy is probably a myth.
Also doesn't help that the Roman province of Palestine was utterly saturated in Hellenic culture around the time that Jesus existed. I would not be surprised if certain Hellenic mystery cults like the Hermetics merged with Jewish traditions to create a lot of Jesus like individuals.
Okay, but prove he existed
The scholarly consensus is that a real Jesus existed, and it's actually a really fascinating topic to read about.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Historicity_of_Jesus?wprov=sfla1
Yea, but are the majority of scholars really free from bias with 3 major religions notorious for killing people over disagreements (and funding those that agree with them) all having a vested interest in perpetuation of the myth?
Every wikipedia source to the contrary is essentially an agrument to authority and didn't even discuss the underlying "evidence" or points to sources long after the fact and calls on:
Multiple attestation across independent Gospel traditions (Yea, right, that can all be made up)
Criterion of embarrassment: (Once again, not evidence. Religions are not aways rational, or correct)
Tacitus (Annals 15.44, c. 116 CE): "Christus... suffered the extreme penalty during the reign of Tiberius at the hands of one of our procurators, Pontius Pilatus." This is the key non-Christian corroboration. (And a hundred years later, press X to doubt)
So, I'm not impressed.
To your first point, no one is free of bias, but it's not the Middle Ages dude. People are free to not be Christian or to criticize or contradict Christianity, and they do all the time. Even non-Christian historians agree that Jesus likely existed.
Between the canonical and apocryphal gospels there are a good amount of people who wrote about Jesus for decades after his death. In my personal opinion as an armchair historian it just seems more likely that early Christian writers, intentionally or not, mythologized a real person that people already knew existed rather than invented one whole cloth.
this is like saying we know what year Poseidon was born.
But clearly a historical Poseidon existed or there wouldn't have been so much literature written about him.
There are eye witness testimonies in the Illiad.
the logic is sound.
Funny, I use that exact example as evidence that Dionysius Exiguus is full of shit. They didn't know we'd have access to radio carbon dating and stylomotry.
The earliest texts were written 300-400 years after Jesus allegedly lived.
It's far more likely someone in the 4th century wanted to start a cult and needed to come up with some lore to give them credence. Which exactly lines up with the fact that this whole Jesus dude didn't actually fulfill any fucking prophecies, but instead the already ancient Jewish messianic texts were used as metaphors because they had to be. He didn't exist.
7-4 BC? So 3 BC?
Wouldn't it be 10BC? I think it goes backward when you're in negative numbers...
That's a long labour! Did Mary at least get an epidural?
A cult leader that supposedly started off as a carpenter, that was born from a virgin birth and "performed miracles." You know what the real thing is, it's the, "Well what if he is?," feeling. I'm guessing that's what scared the shit out of everyone back then too and throughout Christianity's existence. That one fuckin' feeling.
'Cause being scared, hopeless, in shambles or something of the sort is when people turn to religion or drugs..... Or both....
It's just comfort shit though and I don't hate on it, it's just something that I have no ability to truly put belief into.
He was so ahead of his time he was born before Christ.
Don't forget about the Star of Bethlehem - if you date the birth by it - you will get other numbers in the mix.