this post was submitted on 18 Jun 2026
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Luigi Mangione

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[–] technocrit@lemmy.dbzer0.com 1 points 5 days ago

Completely unsurprising how the injustice system is based on false dichotomies and pseudo-science.

[–] nutbutter@discuss.tchncs.de 8 points 1 week ago (2 children)

Wouldn't that mean that he DID kill him? Like accepting the crime?

[–] FUCKING_CUNO@lemmy.dbzer0.com 4 points 1 week ago (1 children)

I was wondering the same, how does that work with him pleading not guilty?

[–] stoly@lemmy.world 2 points 1 week ago

It would be manslaughter rather than murder. Murder requires the prosecution to prove intent while manslaughter has a lower barrier. Simple negligence leading to a death is manslaughter, for instance.

[–] Hazor@lemmy.world 1 points 1 week ago* (last edited 1 week ago)

Depends. Particulars vary by state, but if such a claim was made then the court would likely order a psychological evaluation. In my state, if they determined that because of a mental illness he was not competent to stand trial or lacked capacity to appreciate the (legally) wrongful nature of his (alleged) actions at the time of the alleged crime, then either the charges might be dropped or he might be found Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity. In either case, that often (particularly for violent crimes) results in judicial commitment to a psychiatric hospital. Which can often result in a longer term of confinement than the prison sentence would have been.

[–] Jarix@lemmy.world 5 points 1 week ago* (last edited 1 week ago)

There's already a post today that the lawyers are withdrawing that claim and not proceeding with it. Btw