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I'm talking like one person brought in all the money for a decade, then a divorce happens. Some of it makes sense - a house with mortgage, one spouse buys the other out of the house. Which is great, but if one spouse doesn't have the income to take a loan out to buy the other, does that mean that the spouse who does have the income has the choice to buy out or sell?

Similarly, things like 401ks and pensions I imagine you can't just take out half the cash in them and give that to their spouse. Or does that have to be a loan for the amounts in those plans?

Is it debt all the way down for both?

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[-] OneWomanCreamTeam@sh.itjust.works 24 points 1 year ago

This is actually where systems like alimony come from. If only one works, (or one makes significantly more than the other) it can kind of leave the other up the creek without a paddle.

this post was submitted on 09 Oct 2023
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