this post was submitted on 31 Aug 2026
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[–] TranscendentalEmpire@lemmy.today 21 points 2 days ago (3 children)

Nah, the key word is "my". If she was actually sensitive to pheromones she would be attracted to the smell of all sweating men.

[–] Epp@lemmus.org 1 points 16 hours ago (1 children)

That's not true. They may create a chemical signal that other men do not, due to their genetics. You can't assume uniformity in biology.

[–] TranscendentalEmpire@lemmy.today 1 points 15 hours ago (1 children)

They may create a chemical signal that other men do not, due to their genetics.

Any supporting evidence to this claim? I could just as easily claim that I have telekinetic powers that others do not because of my genetics.

You can't assume uniformity in biology.

Yeah..... You can. If there is an established norm, then there is no reason to assume extraordinary uniqueness unless presented with evidence that begs to differ.

[–] Epp@lemmus.org 1 points 15 hours ago (1 children)

Any supporting evidence to this claim?

Yes, plenty.

Here's a good read for you

And no, you can't assume uniformity. That's like saying that cilantro tastes the same to everyone (it doesn't). Or that everyone can smell when someone has eaten asparagus from their urine (some can, and can't). Everyone is different. That's the effect of genetics.

[–] TranscendentalEmpire@lemmy.today 1 points 13 hours ago (1 children)

"Here's a good read for you"

19.3. CONCLUSIONS In this chapter I have provided a snapshot of the history of the pheromone concept and examples of its common applications to humans. As described in detail elsewhere (Doty 2010), there is a lack of consensus as to what defines a pheromone, making it difficult to tie down as an objective scientific entity. Most definitions imply that a pheromone (a) is comprised of one or only a few chemicals, (b) is species-specific, (c) has well-defined behavioral or endocrine effects, and (d) is little influenced by learning. To date, no chemicals have been isolated in humans that meet such criteria.

Apparently you did not choose to read your own source?

And no, you can't assume uniformity. That's like saying that cilantro tastes the same to everyone (it doesn't).

Ahh yes, a matter of subjectivity is exactly like claiming an objective fact......

Everyone is different. That's the effect of genetics.

Everyone has a range of expression that is influenced by their genes. Someone being able to attract all women with their specific smell would not be something we have previously observed in any human. Meaning it's safe to assume that it is not something someone's genes can express.

Yes, plenty.

Ah yes, a study consisting of 25 people...... with no behavioural controls. Brilliant.

[–] fervent_apathy@anarchist.nexus 1 points 9 hours ago (1 children)

Species-specific means they aren't inter-species, not that they're uniform across a species.

Intra-species variations of pheromone production has certainly been studied, the question isn't really whether it occurs, but rather why intra-species pheromone variations occur.

[–] TranscendentalEmpire@lemmy.today 1 points 6 hours ago (1 children)

Species-specific means they aren't inter-species, not that they're uniform across a species.

When did I make that assumption.....?

[–] fervent_apathy@anarchist.nexus 1 points 8 minutes ago

You didn't. It was an assumption based on you quoting the other commenters source asking had they even read it. I don't see how anything else in that conclusion could be confused for confirmation of a uniform intra-species pheromone, which is the point you've been trying to make in this thread, and asked for sources that contradict your assertion.

Did you check out the source I posted? Curious to hear your thoughts on the matter.

[–] Quokka@quokk.au 7 points 2 days ago (1 children)

I am certainly attracted to the smell of sweaty (clean) women, and even myself since transitioning. Women sweat is like ooof.

You can like a smell without pheromones being involved, more than likely it's just associative.

[–] darkwing_duck@sh.itjust.works 2 points 2 days ago (2 children)

It would stand to reason that different men emit differently balanced pheromones. Why would they all be the same?

My personal combination is attractive to her specifically. It's possible she would find some other men's sweat attractive as well, but I haven't asked.

[–] TranscendentalEmpire@lemmy.today 3 points 1 day ago (1 children)

differently balanced pheromones

There is no scientific evidence to support that humans emit any pheromones, let alone a multitude of pheromones. Even if we did, we do not possess the vomeronasal organ that other animals have that allows them to detect them.

[–] Epp@lemmus.org 0 points 16 hours ago (1 children)

You don't need a specific organ to have a reaction to chemical signals. A pheromone is just a chemical the body creates, and an external body responds to. That response can be due to smell, taste or even touch. No special organ is needed for any of those.

[–] TranscendentalEmpire@lemmy.today 1 points 15 hours ago (1 children)

You don't need a specific organ to have a reaction to chemical signals.

Yes..... you do? That would be like saying you don't need a nose to smell, or taste buds to taste.

pheromone is just a chemical the body creates, and an external body responds to

No. Pheromones are chemical messages that trigger specific behaviour or developmental changes in an external body.

That response can be due to smell, taste or even touch. No special organ is needed for any of those.

Smells and associations attached to smell are not the same thing as pheromones. In certain mammals and reptiles pheromones are received by the vomeronasal organ.

[–] Epp@lemmus.org 1 points 15 hours ago (1 children)

You're trying to make pheromones out to be something not supported by the definition. Pheromones are chemicals created in one body, that have an effect in someone else's body.

Dictionary definition:

a chemical substance that is usually produced by an animal and serves especially as a stimulus to other individuals of the same species for one or more behavioral responses

[–] TranscendentalEmpire@lemmy.today 1 points 14 hours ago

Lol, the merriam Webster dictionary is not an appropriate source to define the scientific understanding of a word or term.

The biggest difference between a pheromone and an odorus compound is that pheromones have an Innate purpose and odors have responses learned through association.

By your understanding of the word pheromone the sulphuric odor in fart could be defined as a pheromone..

[–] solo@piefed.social 2 points 1 day ago

It looks like the receptor of pheromones is present, but doesn't work. From [wiki]:

Among studies that use microanatomical methods, there is no reported evidence that human beings have active sensory neurons like those in working vomeronasal systems of other animals. Furthermore, there is no evidence to date that suggests there are nerve and axon connections between any existing sensory receptor cells that may be in the adult human VNO and the brain. Likewise, there is no evidence for any accessory olfactory bulb in adult human beings, and the key genes involved in VNO function in other mammals have pseudogenized in human beings.