Species-specific means they aren't inter-species, not that they're uniform across a species.
Intra-species variations of pheromone production has certainly been studied, the question isn't really whether it occurs, but rather why intra-species pheromone variations occur.
You didn't. It was an assumption based on you quoting the other commenters source asking had they even read it. I don't see how anything else in that conclusion could be confused for confirmation of a uniform intra-species pheromone, which is the point you've been trying to make in this thread, and asked for sources that contradict your assertion.
Did you check out the source I posted? Curious to hear your thoughts on the matter.
uniform intra-species pheromone, which is the point you've been trying to make in this thread,
I don't see how you made that assumption. My point in this whole thread was that there wasn't any solid evidence that humans emit or receive pheromones.
The uniform thing was an assertion made by the other person, claiming that there was no uniformity in biology.
Yeah..... You can. If there is an established norm, then there is no reason to assume extraordinary uniqueness unless presented with evidence that begs to differ.
I simply presented you with "the evidence that begs to differ". Whether or not it applies to humans was never the point I was making. I simply asked for your thoughts on uniformity regarding intra-species pheromones.
Species-specific means they aren't inter-species, not that they're uniform across a species.
Intra-species variations of pheromone production has certainly been studied, the question isn't really whether it occurs, but rather why intra-species pheromone variations occur.
When did I make that assumption.....?
You didn't. It was an assumption based on you quoting the other commenters source asking had they even read it. I don't see how anything else in that conclusion could be confused for confirmation of a uniform intra-species pheromone, which is the point you've been trying to make in this thread, and asked for sources that contradict your assertion.
Did you check out the source I posted? Curious to hear your thoughts on the matter.
I don't see how you made that assumption. My point in this whole thread was that there wasn't any solid evidence that humans emit or receive pheromones.
The uniform thing was an assertion made by the other person, claiming that there was no uniformity in biology.
You responded with:
I simply presented you with "the evidence that begs to differ". Whether or not it applies to humans was never the point I was making. I simply asked for your thoughts on uniformity regarding intra-species pheromones.