this post was submitted on 25 Aug 2026
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[–] givesomefucks@lemmy.world 2 points 4 days ago (1 children)

That doesn’t really seem solid to me

Well, that's because you don't seem to know what a bait car is...

The modification is usually just that the car shuts off in less than a minute. Some will disable seatbelt releases or lock the doors so you can't get out.

But the thing that makes it a bait car, is there's no risk of high speed pursuit. It is still a car.

For grand theft auto you need to prove they intended to actually steal the car otherwise it’s just joyriding.

What the fuck is that even?

You think if someone steals a car, the charges are reduced if they say it's for funsies?

At the very least it’d seem like they’d still be up for vandalism/destruction of property,

Again, you have no idea what I'm talking about, what the article is talking about, or how criminal charges work...

In general the value of the object determines misdemeanor/felony. Which I'm assuming you might not know, is a huge difference.

If charged on the actual value, no DA would charge. So they want to charge on the perceived value, which is still under the felony limit.

At the very least it’d seem like

Crimes under the felony threshold should be charged as misdemeanor equivalents...

[–] CTDummy@piefed.social 1 points 4 days ago* (last edited 4 days ago)

Not sure what in my comment is deserving of the hostility but anyway. Nor given the way my comment is phrased, do I think I’m trying to pass myself off as an expert. Just very doubtful of the implication that this guy is going to walk out without a charge.

The modification is usually just that the car shuts off in less than a minute

Which as I suggested, allows for the intent to be demonstrated. My point was a fake car would be pointless, so the point of “it’s still a real car” falls flat. (Edit: also joyriding is still a crime. Hardly funsies)

Tap for spoiler

Elements of Grand Theft Auto

Generally, a prosecutor charging grand theft auto will need to show that the defendant drove or otherwise took possession of a motor vehicle owned by someone else. The defendant must not have had the permission of the owner. In addition, a prosecutor must prove that the defendant intended to deprive the owner of the vehicle.

https://www.justia.com/criminal/offenses/theft-crimes/auto-theft/

In general the value of the object determines misdemeanor/felony. Which I'm assuming you might not know, is a huge difference.

Which I agree means he’s not likely to get a full felony charge, but since he broke rule 1 of interacting with the police and admitted to thinking they had value in a statement (allegedly). He could still be facing at least attempted criminal mischief for vandalism (I think). Which isn’t as bad but still potentially a felony.

“When asked how much he believes the camera costs to replace, he stated approximately $1,000-$5,000 proving that Meyer knew it was an expensive real piece of equipment and not a fake replica,” the police report states.

Though the police wording is borderline nonsensical.

Crimes under the felony threshold should be charged as misdemeanor equivalents...

Cops never do that, for reasons you alluded to in your top comment, to deter others from doing it and hoping something sticks. My main point was claiming the had he’s unlikely to be charged is a bit of a stretch.