this post was submitted on 17 Mar 2026
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[–] encelado748@feddit.org 0 points 22 hours ago* (last edited 22 hours ago) (1 children)

Ok, you won, my original claim that "Germany industrialized without colonial benefit" is false. I am defeated. I will claim that "Germany industrialized with minimal colonial benefit when minimal represent an economical input that is less then 5% of GDP by 1880".

then I will stop this charade. Have a nice day, kind of worthless discussion

[–] QinShiHuangsShlong@lemmy.ml 4 points 22 hours ago (1 children)

You cannot even graciously admit you were wrong. You have to make another bs claim pulled straight from your ass and cover it in sarcasm. "Minimal colonial benefit" defined by an arbitrary GDP percentage you just invented.

This was never about winning or losing. I was hoping that from exposure you might decide to do some research instead of spreading colonial apologism and "smarter Europe" nonsense that borders on race science.

Genuinely, if you just take the time to read the works I recommended and apply a proper analysis to history, you will be much more informed. Less likely to be embarrassed. Less likely to lash out when basic facts are corrected.

I wish you the best in growing up and finishing your education. Hopefully it broadens your horizons.

[–] encelado748@feddit.org -3 points 22 hours ago (1 children)

I am so embarrassed in front of your clearly superior knowledge. You made so many unbiased relevant defining points tonight that I really struggle to reconstruct my flawed vision of global socioeconomic dynamics.