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Trump says he’ll have the ‘honor of taking Cuba’ and can do ‘anything I want with it’
(www.independent.co.uk)
this post was submitted on 16 Mar 2026
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A problem with these graphs & your inferences is it's objectively unclear what to expect. What do they look like for other countries? What part of this is explained by other factors like unique historical advantages (eg, an industrial base untouched by war during the postwar boom) dissipating as other countries rebuild & catch up? Can we decouple these time-dependent factors to get an expected baseline performance apart from them?
With that social mobility graph, should we expect nearly all children to earn more than their parents every subsequent generation indefinitely? The remarkably similar graph provided by the source cited by yours shows birthyear of the child starting in 1940. Couldn't their parents earning substantially less, perhaps by living through the Great Depression, and the postwar boom significantly explain the high proportion earning more than their parents? And as GDP per capita growth declines, wouldn't we likewise expect a declining proportion of children to earn more than their parents? A base of reference would really help here.
As for the Gini coefficient, we see a 7% range from 35% to 42%. While this is an increase, it doesn't seem staggering & needs evidence to distinctly support your conclusion.
Some problems you mentioned were always present or worse when that Gini coefficient reached its minimum: gerrymandering, obstructions to vote (felon disenfranchisement, intimidation, poll taxes & tests), discriminatory incarceration, 2-party system due to plurality voting, etc. They're not new developments systematically leading in the direction you claim.
It looks like you started with your conclusion & worked backwards to confirm it with evidence that is not as conclusive as you claim. An open-minded skeptic wouldn't be convinced.