this post was submitted on 20 Feb 2026
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Android

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[–] SchmidtGenetics@lemmy.world 3 points 15 hours ago (2 children)

What can the state do if someone from another state where it’s legal records it anyways?

[–] Blueliner@lemmy.world 8 points 15 hours ago

This is still the US. They can shoot them.

[–] dejected_warp_core@lemmy.world -1 points 15 hours ago (2 children)

Not sure how good a source this is, but: https://www.getnextphone.com/blog/call-recording-laws-by-state

Interstate calls must follow the stricter state's law (if calling California from Texas, California rules apply)

[–] grue@lemmy.world 6 points 13 hours ago* (last edited 13 hours ago) (1 children)

Bullshit. California has no jurisdiction over people in one-party consent states.

The California court decision it cites (Kearney v. Salomon Smith Barney, Inc. (2006)) is being misinterpreted: the "Georgia" party in that instance was a corporation that also does business in California, and that is what made it subject to California law. The notion that its precedent creates some "general rule" is a blatant fucking lie.

[–] Pika@sh.itjust.works 1 points 10 hours ago

even then, the ruling that you show here stated that CA sided with Georgia in the case as well, they stated that future business should hold to CA's laws due to the customer being a CA resident, but that due to the company residing in Georgia, they are not liable for past damages. It was basically a case of "we believe our law is correct but we have no jurisdiction to actually chase this and if it goes to federal court it will be tossed due to federal law favoring one party consent"

[–] SchmidtGenetics@lemmy.world 2 points 15 hours ago* (last edited 15 hours ago)

Okay, but if it’s broken, how does the person know let alone what CAN they do.

The article doesn’t cover how they recover the damages in another state. Having the laws is only one small portion of the picture.

It being legal federally is a hurdle on its own.