this post was submitted on 15 May 2025
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[–] kadup@lemmy.world 6 points 2 days ago (1 children)

Feminicide is a killing motivated by gender. Sure, the man might not have killed any woman, just his wife... But would he have killed his brother?

The idea that a wife is a belonging and that abusing or even killing her over a domestic dispute is deeply rooted in traditional gender values, so killing your wife is got a gigantic gender-related motivation behind it.

[–] Kecessa@sh.itjust.works 4 points 2 days ago (1 children)

But again, and you're saying it yourself, it's because she was his wife, he wouldn't have killed a woman colleague or his sister and there's a term for that, it's just not as well known.

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uxoricide

If a woman kills her husband we call it a mariticide, not a masculinicide...

[–] kadup@lemmy.world 5 points 2 days ago* (last edited 2 days ago)

he wouldn't have killed a woman colleague or his sister

But killing a woman with gender as an underlying factor does not mean you're going to go around killing every woman.

This is about what factors constitute the motivation for the crime, not necessarily an obsessed serial killer.

For instance, many murders are racislly motivated - but it doesn't mean the killer was killing every black person that crossed their path. A famous case in the US had a guy kill a black man, in front of his family, over a misunderstanding and confrontation - he killed the guy because of the confrontation but he only got to the point of killing because he was black, if this were a white person, we would have de-escalated the situation.

If a woman kills her husband

Do we have a historical, multi-generational heritage of women dominating the familiar structure and seeing husbands as property?