this post was submitted on 11 Aug 2023
280 points (91.2% liked)
Asklemmy
43946 readers
810 users here now
A loosely moderated place to ask open-ended questions
Search asklemmy ๐
If your post meets the following criteria, it's welcome here!
- Open-ended question
- Not offensive: at this point, we do not have the bandwidth to moderate overtly political discussions. Assume best intent and be excellent to each other.
- Not regarding using or support for Lemmy: context, see the list of support communities and tools for finding communities below
- Not ad nauseam inducing: please make sure it is a question that would be new to most members
- An actual topic of discussion
Looking for support?
Looking for a community?
- Lemmyverse: community search
- sub.rehab: maps old subreddits to fediverse options, marks official as such
- !lemmy411@lemmy.ca: a community for finding communities
~Icon~ ~by~ ~@Double_A@discuss.tchncs.de~
founded 5 years ago
MODERATORS
you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments
view the rest of the comments
Yes, but your "not god" is simply a different deity. So it's a different proof. We're back to the faulty premise.
"God X" and "God Y" are equally valid assertions which violates the premise. I don't care that you call it "anti-God" since you're making it equivalent to a god and able to offer eternal rewards. Your entire logical argument is absurd. Pascal's wager is famously known for suffering from false premise of finite loss and infinite reward. All of the absurdity of the wager comes from the premises which you continually ignore.
Faulty premise isn't a logical fallacy though. That's my whole problem here. False premise doesn't mean the logic is invalid. This is an important concept in formal logic. The argument is fine. The foundation is not. You're just now agreeing with what I originally said.