this post was submitted on 03 Aug 2026
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[–] atro_city@fedia.io 13 points 2 months ago (5 children)

Russian doesn't have definite/indefinite articles?

[–] TubularTittyFrog@lemmy.world 15 points 2 months ago* (last edited 2 months ago) (1 children)

it doesn't really use article at all.

it's highly cased, the cases and inflection do all the work.

[–] MonkderVierte@lemmy.zip 3 points 2 months ago (2 children)

That doesn't sound more simple.

[–] TubularTittyFrog@lemmy.world 6 points 2 months ago (3 children)

English has strict word order and all these stupid helper words, how is that simpler?

[–] Viking_Hippie@lemmy.dbzer0.com 4 points 2 months ago

By being the devil we know, I guess? 🤷🏻

Lol. English is the opposite of simple.

[–] MonkderVierte@lemmy.zip 0 points 2 months ago

Ok, it is relatively simple to learn for the indogerman family. And looks like, for chinese/korean/japanese as well.

[–] ickplant@lemmy.world 5 points 2 months ago

The case are quite complicated, yes. But not having articles is way simpler. And I can’t say it ever caused confusion growing up.

[–] PostingInPublic@lemmy.world 11 points 2 months ago

And they aren't clear when to use them either, it's kinda cute when they look at you questioningly if they did correctly after formulating a sentence.

[–] Dicska@lemmy.world 9 points 2 months ago (1 children)

Neither does Polish. I know at least one polaka who confuses the/a(n) 15% of the time.

[–] addie@feddit.uk 5 points 2 months ago (2 children)

One of my Polish colleagues, who otherwise speaks pretty perfect English, seems to choose he/she/it at random when putting sentences together. Which is fine for objects, but misleading for people. "I saw a friend yesterday and she said such-and-such" for a male friend, and so on.

[–] Dicska@lemmy.world 2 points 2 months ago (1 children)

...which sounds surprising to me, because AFAIK Polish also has separate he/she words (on/ona).

[–] Aqarius@lemmy.world 7 points 2 months ago* (last edited 2 months ago) (1 children)

I assume he's aligning the pronouns to the gender of the noun, rather than the person. "Susie is a great worker, he's very efficient" kind of stuff.

[–] Lumidaub@feddit.org 1 points 2 months ago (1 children)

I'd be surprised if there weren't a female "worker" in Polish, "workeress" as it were, same for any other such nouns.

[–] Aqarius@lemmy.world 1 points 2 months ago

Depends on the exact word. For example, person is grammatically female, even if the actual person isn't. Or, a lot of times you can make a different form, but you don't strictly need to.

It's actually somewhat of an ongoing debate in places WRT professions: declaring whatever the current word is to be gender neutral, or having mandatory versions for both male and female (German /inen approach).

[–] BenVimes@lemmy.ca 5 points 2 months ago

I think it's the case with most Slavic languages. My wife's native tongue is Serbian, and knowinf when and how to use articles was one the hardest parts of learning English for her.

[–] farmgineer@nord.pub 2 points 2 months ago

Most (if not all) Slavic-family languages do not. Neither do Japanese nor Korean. Some languages have a partial system (i.e. no a/an but the to show definiteness). Some languages have both but do it differently (Scandanavian languages suffix the definite article on nouns, but the indefinite precedes the noun like in English). Languages are messy and neat.