europe

with the destruction/dismantling of key industrial capacity and the resulting push of employment and production toward farming and rural labor, landholding and rural authority would have quickly became more important than urban/industrial bourgeois power, recreating over time feudal relations of production and obligation.

I don't find it reasonable that feudal relations would've been restored in the 1940s-1950s when capitalism has been well-established for centuries with imperialism as the current stage. Honestly, I can't even think of a country where feudal restoration is a thing outside of maybe going from Cromwell's Protectorate back to the UK or the Dutch Republic being replaced with the Kingdom of the Netherlands. And even those two are more about the capitalists of those countries taking a few steps back in the political arena while the mode of production they represent still marched onward to replace the feudal mode of production. The UK and the Netherlands are still kingdoms, yet no one seriously thinks they're feudal societies, and they haven't been feudal societies for centuries.

For the rest of your post, I broadly agree/have no comment.