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submitted 1 year ago by genfood@feddit.de to c/europe@feddit.de
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[-] Anamana@feddit.de 0 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

Probably not. My assumption would also be that this trend hasn't been going on for long enough to be a decisive factor yet.

If only there was some historical reason to explain why Eastern Europe doesn't have that many landlords.

[-] Anamana@feddit.de 2 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

I thought the Soviet Union was famous for monopolising houses in the hands of a rich elite /s

this post was submitted on 28 Sep 2023
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