this post was submitted on 08 Mar 2026
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[–] darklamer@feddit.org 1 points 2 days ago (1 children)

Creoles aren’t even considered fully fledged languages, which is why there is a word for them as a concept, so including them would be wrong. Many of them are also just a mix of a local language and English. They might disappear, or evolve to full languages.

You must have gravely misunderstood many things here, for you can't possibly really believe that the language of Haiti (to take a very obvious and well-known example) isn't a "fully fledged language" (whatever that's supposed to mean) or that it has any risk of disappearing (greater than any other language).

I don’t know the Maltese language, but that description is still more coherent than what has gone down with English whose grammar rules are all over the place.

While it's true that also English has borrowed some grammar from other languages (as most languages have, to varying degrees), that has, as far as I'm aware of, all been from related Indo-European languages, not even close to requiring the amount of duct taping of Maltese. Can you think of even a single example of an English grammar rule that doesn't come from another Indo-European language?

[–] BryyM@lemmy.world -1 points 2 days ago (1 children)

No, I have not misunderstood and I do not agree with your argument.

[–] darklamer@feddit.org 0 points 2 days ago (1 children)

OK, then you're just wrong. Sorry.