Riverside

joined 2 weeks ago
[–] Riverside@reddthat.com 1 points 3 days ago (3 children)

Notice my comment specifically mentioning post-1955. Poland was made to pay reparations to the USSR because of the lives lost saving Poland, which is debatable, this was stopped after the mid 50s

[–] Riverside@reddthat.com 1 points 3 days ago (2 children)

Yes, because of Yank propaganda. I don't see how they're anything remotely as bad as Vietnam or Korea, look at the figures of deaths. It's just that Europeans are racist as fuck and don't care about deaths of Asians, and American propaganda was much more pervasive.

[–] Riverside@reddthat.com 2 points 3 days ago

Gracias, compa <3

[–] Riverside@reddthat.com 2 points 4 days ago (4 children)

25 million Soviets died during the war. Is the 8.7 just soldiers?

[–] Riverside@reddthat.com 2 points 4 days ago

I already provided an extensive comment regarding the widely misconstrued Molotov-Ribbentrop in this comment section, you should check it out.

Thanks for agreeing with my point: yes, it was the Soviets that took the brunt of the war and did the most to destroy Nazism. Lend lease helped, but the main factor in the destruction of Nazism was the Soviet interwar industrialization push since 1929's first 5-year plan.

[–] Riverside@reddthat.com 0 points 4 days ago (5 children)

it suffered from its close association to the many failures of the Soviet Union (such as its foreign policy flip-flops and numerous human right violations)

By that logic, all modern pro-NATO parties in the EU should have disappeared in the 1950s. You say the USSR has policy flip flops, but have you looked at the USA's foreign policy? As for human rights violations, I don't really know what you're talking about regarding the French Communist Party "natural political decline". Since Stalin's death in the 1950s the gulags were closed, famines had disappeared, and the USSR was an overwhelmingly peaceful nation that internationally provided help to emancipatory anti-colonial projects such as those of Cuba or Vietnam, while the US bombed the fuck out of them. Also, did you just say "nah" to the source I brought and simply disregarded it?

[–] Riverside@reddthat.com 2 points 4 days ago

And what should the alternative be? Because the other only possible alternative was allowing the Nazis full control of those lands. For comparison, the Katyn massacre in Poland likely carried out by the Soviets during occupation consists of figures numbered in the tens of thousands, and Nazi extermination in Poland killed several millions. What's the desired occupation?

[–] Riverside@reddthat.com 3 points 4 days ago

while raping the inhabitants

And that's where we stop arguing. There is no evidence of higher rates of sexual assault by Soviet troops than by any other, and the whole "rapist hordes" stems from Nazi wartime propaganda and has been picked up by racists like you.

[–] Riverside@reddthat.com 1 points 4 days ago (2 children)

You're not answering my question:

Britain got 3 times as much aid from Lend-Lease than the USSR. If Lend-Lease is the main factor behind the Soviets defeating the Nazis (as proven by Nazis suffering 80% of their dead soldiers in the Eastern Front), why didn't Britain kill many more Nazis?

[–] Riverside@reddthat.com 1 points 4 days ago (4 children)

Lend-lease, it's USA policy.

Answer my question: if lend-lease won the war, if Britain received $30bn and the USSR received $11bn, why didn't Britain win the war?

[–] Riverside@reddthat.com 0 points 4 days ago (1 children)

I provided you sources with NUMERICAL DATA contradicting your statements directly. Until you prove otherwise with evidence, don't continue this conversation. This is a community about history, not vibes-based analysis.

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