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(lemmy.world)
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this post was submitted on 12 Dec 2023
477 points (91.0% liked)
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Timeline? Hamas does a terror attack on Oct 7th and kills 1200 people, Israel responds by killing at least 17000 Palestinians over the next 2 months and that's just the lower end of the estimate.
Hamas attacking Isreal justifies Isreal attacking Gaza. So the next Hamas attack is then justified because Isreal attacked them? Or does the justification go only one way for you?
That's a very simplistic take for a complex long-term problem that people have been struggling to solve for a very long time.
Let me expand the timeline for you slightly:
1948: Israel expels 700,000 Palestinians from their homeland, with the aid of the British empire.
1948-Oct 6th: Israel continues to exist as an apartheid state.
Oct 7th: Hamas terror attack, killing 1200 people. Israel continues to exist as an apartheid state.
Oct 8th-now: Israel kills 17000+ Palestinians. Israel continues to exist as an apartheid state.
You shouldn't have expected better from @fosforus@sopuli.xyz and I shouldn't have answered their dumb question either... I should have stopped for a moment and said to myself, "why would anyone ask this question unless to make a hideous point?"
It's got the same undertone as the "What would you do if 1200 of your people were butchered?" question. Not whatever you're doing, that's for sure!
It's like somehow you can't get it through your thick head that you can't just rob people of their land and massacre them, otherwise they retaliate.
Framing 1948 as some kind of Israeli victory will go down the dumpster of history in style.
"Israel fights war to successfully ethnically cleanse 700k Palestinians and destroy 500 of their villages, then claims that the Palestinians abandoned their homes, hence making them totally up for grabs. "
Yeah that sounds lovely.
It absolutely isn't.
In what way?