cross-posted from: https://sh.itjust.works/post/57392984
this post was submitted on 14 Jun 2026
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I don't think I fully understand the situation. From reading that it seems that Canadian bills require royal assent to become law. Doesn't that effectively mean that the King of England determines Canadian law? It seems there's some obfuscation going on between the governor general and the monarch but I don't think I'm getting how that changes things at a fundamental level.
Canada has a king.
The UK also has a king.
They happen to be the same person.
So the king has similar authority in both Canada and the UK (plus 12 other countries). With respect to Canada, the king is just as much Canadian as he is British (or Australian, etc). With respect to the monarchy, each realm (country) in the commonwealth is on an equal footing with each other.
So the UK has no more bearing on Canadian law than Canada has on UK law.
The Governor General rubber stamps the bill passed by the Parliament. The Governor General is nominally an agent appointed by the King of Canada (who happens to be the same person as the King of the UK), but they are recommended to the king by the Prime Minister. The king similarly rubber stamps whoever the Prime Minister recommended.