this post was submitted on 08 Feb 2026
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HistoryArtifacts
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Oh, yes, certainly. One of the things often noted in the modern day about Caesar's Commentarii is that he draws a much 'stronger' line between the peoples than actually existed. He might have wanted to contrast the "Noble, civilizable" Celts with the "Barbaric, dangerous" Germanics, or he simply might have been calling matters as he saw them through the ethnographic lens of an ancient Roman. Like most regions before concentrated state institutions, it's not really a boolean "Celt/Germanic" so much as it is a gradient, with a lot of outliers. Not only that, but "German" is sometimes thought to be a Celtic word meaning, roughly, "neighbor" - the two cultures were geographically close and interacted on a regular basis.
No clue, I'm afraid!
Thanks for explaining... makes a lot of sense!