this post was submitted on 03 Feb 2026
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I am a bi guy, and this is the least controversial thing ever, imo, lol.
I don't find the ... basically lets call it 'grooming effort gap', to be a compelling explanation for the different scoring distributions.
Because... most men actually can tell when a woman is dressed to the nines and quite glammed up or what have you.
They'll often utterly lack the vocabularly to accurately (muchless politely) describe this, but they have a strong internal heuristic way of doing this.
And most of them account for that in the way they rank the attractiveness of a woman.
By that I mean... they recognize it as gesture that takes effort and signals that someone is trying to be appealing, and that is a good thing...
...but they also know that it acts as a +1 or +2 bonus to the underlying score, or maybe a 1.25x multiplier, something like that, and then you can work backward to the 'actual' attractiveness score, basically.
Yet! You still have ~20% of women being rated as pretty darn attractive. Because guys can generally mostly tell when a woman will look quite attractive whether or not they're in a photoshoot, or just finished running a marathon, or something like that.
This is why there is the whole weird mismatched female vs male social phenomenon of:
"I'm dressing up and doing make up for myself"
vs.
"Yeah, but what does she look like without makeup?"
Like uh... hopefully this isn't a reality imploding thing to say, but men who value a long term relationship lie all the time to women asking whether or not that dress makes them look fat.
... but all of that is basically just my semi informed opinion, I could not off the top of my head produce like, a cluster of studies that prove that.
I suspect that if I spent enough time doing a meta analysis, I probably could find such studies, but I am currently way too lazy (and not being paid) to do that right now, lol.