Okay, so I'm the owner. I buy the house at price X in 2026. My 30 year mortgage payment A = (X + interest - down payment)/n, where n is the number of paying periods in 30 years.

Let's say A is equal to the rent that I set on the tenant(s). Over 30 years, the tenant(s) have paid X + interest, correct? Since they're been paying an amount equal to the mortgage payment. That amount encapsulates the risks because it includes the interest. In total, by 2056, I will have paid off the mortgage

So if in 2056 I sell the house for exactly X (imagine the property hasn't gained value at all) I'll have profited X - down payment dollars. If I was savvier, I would've held on for a bit longer to pay off the down payment, too, or set the rent higher. At no point did I do any work, the tenant(s) paid off my investment and the risk was always on them. This argument holds even if I don't wait until 2056 and sell the house before then with the equity that I have built off of my tenants' payments.

Ergo, landlords are leeches that provide absolutely 0 value and do nothing but hoard and drive up the cost of housing. The only way for this to be fair is if the tenants get equity instead of the landlord while they're renting, but that'd mean landlords wouldn't stand to gain anything (which makes sense because they provide nothing anyway)