this post was submitted on 30 Dec 2025
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askchapo

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Why are the two American political parties so much more firmly entrenched than in other bourgeoisie democracies? (hexbear.net)
submitted 1 week ago by GoodGuyWithACat@hexbear.net to c/askchapo@hexbear.net
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In highschool we were taught of "party realignment" to new voter preferences, where it seems in parliamentary systems they would just form new parties and let the old ones die off. (See the UK now)

It's not entirely due to the republican structure of government, because the US did cycle through a few parties before landing on these two. Republicans being deified for winning the Civil War makes sense but why did the Democrats not die out at least?

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[โ€“] theturtlemoves@hexbear.net 10 points 1 week ago (1 children)

There aren't a lot of first past the post republics, since first past the post is largely used by English speaking countries and most of them have the British King as their Head of State. If you drop the 'republic' condition, then Canada is probably the biggest example.

[โ€“] someone@hexbear.net 8 points 1 week ago

Personally I'd argue that Canada is effectively a republic in all but name after the patriation of the constitution in 1982. The UK government's authority only exists as long as they never attempt to actually use it. If they ever do, it'll spark an immediate constitutional crisis and an instant and vigorous national debate on further limiting the already-effectively-ceremonial powers of the monarchy.