Here is how this goes. All this Epstein shit comes to a head under Trump 1. While there is popular support for investigations, the elites push it to the side while actively covering it up. Dems get in and treat it like a dirty sock they don't want to deal with because it's not serious enough. Four whole years go by with nothing but trials. Then Trump 2 happens. Predictably, they are going to destroy and cover up as much shit as possible. Trump's government is full of the same Floridian dipshits that were dealing with the case at the state level. Trump is involved.
The criminals are in charge of the evidence of course they're not going to release it. But now there also has to be a synthesis to resolve the contradiction. Thesis: Trump is a white-hat who will drain the swamp and arrest the elite pedophile ring. Antithesis: Trump and his closest subordinates are all part of the ring and are actively sabotaging the case. Synthesis: Trump is a good pedophile and the cost of arresting him is just too great. We need to move on.
Child abuse is now just a partisan talking point. We can't do anything about the problem, so we just do the best we can and understand that solving the problem costs too much political/economic capital. Just like with shooting kids or teaching them or feeding them.
What happens when we treat childhood poverty and violence as the cost of freedom and stability? It grows. It becomes worse. It affects more kids. What happens when we treat sexual violence the same way? Any guesses?
In 10-20 years are there going to be openly pedophile Republicans? In 2040 are they going to be pushing for a federal eradication of consent laws like they do with Roe or other stuff? Robber barons of the gilded age were probably pretty pedophilic. So we're just going to do that again? It's not enough that the rich get everything else they want, they need us to be okay with them stealing our children too.
This is just an upper class tradition isn't it? So like every upper class person is trained to exploit and dehumanize people as a requisite of being upper class so this is just part of it yeah? I know Sigmond Freuid's early work seemed to show that. Has this just always been the case and we are now hitting the limits of this system that peobably dates back to the history of upper class nobility?