740

cross-posted from: https://lemmy.crimedad.work/post/12162

Why? Because apparently they need some more incentive to keep units occupied. Also, even though a property might be vacant, there's still imputed rental income there. Its owner is just receiving it in the form of enjoying the unit for himself instead of receiving an actual rent check from a tenant. That imputed rent ought to be taxed like any other income.

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[-] taco_ballerina@lemmy.world 4 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

More than that. You can depreciate the building (but not the land) to offset tax on the income but the bill eventually comes due because by depreciating it you're lowering your cost basis. For example you buy a property for $150k. If you depreciate it long enough it's worth $0. If you then sell it for $350k you have to pay tax on all $350k, not just the $200k gain in value.

However If you intend to use the proceeds from that sale to buy another investment property or properties you can do a 1031 exchange to roll your adjusted basis into the new property. Thus even when you sell it you don't have to pay the tax.

As you might, expect tax laws are written to benefit constituencies that politicians value highly. Wealthy donors are among those constituencies.

this post was submitted on 24 Aug 2023
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