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Women suffer more pain than men across the whole body, major global study finds
(www.theguardian.com)
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Yes. Because with the context of
A) the top level comment
And
B) the fact that I was obviously literally just changing the word "suffer" to "report" in the original headline
And
C) the obvious fucking fact that "Women report higher levels of pain than men (but don't necessarily experience higher levels of pain)" is a logically equivalent statement to "men report lower levels of pain than women (but don't necessarily experience lower levels of pain)" and therefore includes no insinuation about which gender is misreporting
Yes, it's extremely fucking obvious to anyone who can read what I meant.