this post was submitted on 03 Jun 2026
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[–] ParlimentOfDoom@piefed.zip -2 points 3 weeks ago (3 children)

I don't think you know how lawsuits work. The plaintiff has to show the court there's even a case to begin with.

There's currently THREE separate lawsuits about this same issue.

It seems pretty likely they ARE doing it.

[–] BradleyUffner@lemmy.world 2 points 2 weeks ago* (last edited 2 weeks ago) (1 children)

What's the point of even having any trials then? If you're accused of something and it manages to get to court, just skip all that crazy time wasting defense stuff and right off to the firing squad with you! I mean, you're obviously guilty right?

[–] ParlimentOfDoom@piefed.zip -2 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

Civil suit. Not criminal. Learn the difference.

[–] BradleyUffner@lemmy.world 1 points 2 weeks ago

Stop being deliberately obtuse. The point stands.

[–] DaleGribble88@programming.dev 2 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

And this is exactly why other ongoing cases are, generally speaking, not admissible as evidence. Someone doing something bad once doesn't mean that they did it twice. Multiple accusations doesn't mean that they are guilty. Otherwise, a simple conspiracy to bring multiple charges at once would be absolutely damning to a defendant.

Also the pre-trial stuff is pretty much just to show that there was an applicable law that may have been broken. It has almost nothing to do with whether or not the defendant is guilty, liable, or otherwise found at fault.

[–] ParlimentOfDoom@piefed.zip -1 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

Where there's smoke there fire. If there was nothing these cases wouldn't still be ongoing after years (at least one of them is 2+ years old). It would have been thrown out long ago.

These are civil suits, not criminal. You're confusing the two.

[–] DaleGribble88@programming.dev 0 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

I hope you never get picked for jury duty if you genuinely believe that, because that the opposite of how both criminal and civil trials are supposed to be conducted.

Hot sauce: https://www.law.cornell.edu/rules/fre/rule_404

[–] ParlimentOfDoom@piefed.zip 1 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

It's fun that all these comments defending valve are waffling between "it's not happening", and " they're allowed to do it because everyone knows they wrote it in their terms" (they didn't, but it's illegal anyway, so wouldn't matter)

[–] DaleGribble88@programming.dev 1 points 2 weeks ago

And what does that have to do with the price of eggs in China? And regarding the claim in your parenthesis, wrong again. Limitations on how steam keys can be sold through third party vendors is included in their terms of service very explicitly and it is in no way illegal for them to do so. If they are strong arming companies trying to sell games without steam integrations to be the same price as those with the steam integration, well then that would be illegal and the court case is actively determining if that has occurred.

[–] DaleGribble88@programming.dev 1 points 2 weeks ago

The plaintiff has to show the court there’s even a case to begin with.

Yes, and during that process, there is no evidence that is considered. Essentially, the judge takes every claim of wrongdoing at face value, and then determines if there is a law that applies. Basically checking to see if the outcome even matters in the worse case scenario. That works the same for both criminal and civil cases.