this post was submitted on 09 May 2026
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How was Europe allowed to carve up and exploit Africa at the Berlin Conference in a post-slavery era? (lemmy.world)
submitted 6 days ago by WHARRGARBL@lemmy.world to c/askhistorians@lemmy.world
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Was the media/church/merchants/scientific community that promoted The Scramble for Africa as a noble cause unaware of the true motives of the European colonizers, or were they all complicit?

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[–] WHARRGARBL@lemmy.world 1 points 6 days ago (1 children)

This is in regard to the decisions during the 1884-1885 Berlin Conference. Guns were not involved. Could you elaborate?

[–] FartMaster69@lemmy.dbzer0.com 2 points 6 days ago (1 children)

Guns were definitely involved, just because there wasn’t direct fighting doesn’t mean the implication of combat wasn’t on everyone’s mind.

[–] WHARRGARBL@lemmy.world 1 points 6 days ago (1 children)

Are you stating that the Berlin Conference resulted in Africa being partitioned due to implied threats of armed combat between the nation states at the table? Is this recorded history?