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How was Europe allowed to carve up and exploit Africa at the Berlin Conference in a post-slavery era?
(lemmy.world)
Was the media/church/merchants/scientific community that promoted The Scramble for Africa as a noble cause unaware of the true motives of the European colonizers, or were they all complicit?
Assumes facts not in evidence.
Could you please explain what facts are assumed?
Assumes we are (or were) in a post-slavery era.
Thank you for explaining.
Specifically, slavery was either illegal or unconstitutional in the nations that declared ownership of Africa in the Berlin Conference. My question is how Europeans allowed Africa to be divided, brutally colonized, and enslaved at a time when slavery was both illegal and shameful.