this post was submitted on 25 Mar 2026
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Philosophy

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Many people here seem to share an implicit assumption: that there exists an objective reality independent of observation, and that this reality is fundamentally stable and absolute.

I’m not trying to deny that assumption. But I’d like to ask something more specific:

If reality is truly independent and absolute, how do we account for the fact that every access to it is mediated through a subject?

In other words, is what we call “objective reality” something that exists prior to all observation, or is it something that only becomes coherent through the intersection of perspectives?

Not asking for agreement—just curious how far this assumption can be pushed before it starts to shift.

If all we ever have is access through observation, what would it even mean for a reality to exist completely independent of any subject?

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[–] Laura@lemmy.ml 1 points 1 month ago

That helps clarify your position—thank you.

If I understand correctly, you’re saying that mathematics itself constitutes an objective reality, and that our access to it is not dependent on subjective observation.

What I’m still trying to understand is this:

what would it mean, concretely, for access to occur “nonsubjectively”?

Even when engaging with mathematics, it seems that any recognition, manipulation, or understanding still takes place through some form of subject.

So I’m wondering whether the question is not just about whether something is objective, but about whether the very notion of “access” can ever be separated from the structure of subjectivity in the first place.