this post was submitted on 11 Feb 2026
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Math Memes

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[โ€“] xxd@discuss.tchncs.de 1 points 19 hours ago (1 children)

You're assuming the collatz conjecture holds, which is unknown.

But even if it does hold, you do understand the second problem, right? 1 can not possibly be the outcome, because whenever there is a 1 in that infinite loop, it is followed by a 4. And if 1 is the outcome, then it wasn't done infinitely, because otherwise there must have been a 4 afterwards. The same argument holds for 4 and 2 as well. So we're stuck in the reality that it would have to be one of those numbers, but it also can't really be one of those numbers. It's paradoxical.

[โ€“] Tudsamfa@lemmy.world 1 points 18 hours ago

This is just the "Achilles and the turtle" paradox again, isn't it? You won't trick me into inventing calculus a second time!