Explanation
The losses of Germany on the eastern front are widely believed to be the most significant factor in defeating Nazi Germany and the USSR won the battle of Berlin, the final battle before the German capitulation. Thus Europe widely believed (for a good reason) that the USSR was the main contributor in defeating Germany. With the cold war the perception of the USSR became a lot worse in western countries like France and with increasing anti-USSR sentiment the view flipped to viewing the USA as the deciding factor. The USSR (and the Russian Federation today, even if its government is very anti USSR) viewed itself as the most important force in defeating Germany, especially because the USSR had the biggest amount of deaths. It is worth noting that the USSR was at least commercially allied with Nazi Germany until June 22, 1941 and there was an agreement between the nations on which parts of Europe each could invade and which where reserved for the other.
The "fall" in question:
"clandestine "stay-behind" operations of armed resistance that were organized by the Western Union and subsequently by NATO and by the CIA in collaboration with several European intelligence agencies during the Cold War. [...] the operation involved the use of assassination, psychological warfare, and false flag operations to delegitimize left-wing parties in Western European countries, and even went so far as to support anti-communist militias and right-wing terrorism as they tortured communists and assassinated them"
Infiltration? Goons? You mean legitimate supporters of the Soviet Union, the state that saved their own fucking countries from Nazism?
While you're mostly right, the communist parties were mostly turned into propaganda assets by Moscow. Which only "saved" countries in order to pillage all of their assets and incorporate them into their own dictatorship. So it's not really such a disinterested gesture.
For its many mistakes, the USSR didn't pillage the resources of any country, the only argument you could make in this direction are postwar reparations against Nazi countries such as Hungary. After 1955 especially, the trade policy inside the COMECON was one of the USSR supplying raw goods at subsidized prices in exchange for industrially manufactured goods. This policy is detailed with numbers in Robert C. Allen's "Farm to Factory" and Albert Szymanski's "Human Rights in the Soviet Union". What's your data source for claiming the Soviet Union pillaged any country?
In every country that was forcibly incorporated in the eastern bloc, every factory that could be disassembled was systematically sent to Russia. All the machines and ressources were systematically sent to Russia. That's absolutely pillaging.
Then why was GDP per capita higher in Estonia and Czechoslovakia higher than in the USSR? Why did Romania go from having 40% of industrial workers to 20% after the 1990s? What's your source for this?
I already proved, with sources, that it was backwards. The net material balances were extractive from the USSR which gave resources like metals, gas and oil at subsidized prices to the COMECON countries. Think about it for just one second: the USSR does not need resources, it's the largest country in the world, a fossil fuel exporter, and has immense material wealth from the extensive mining complexes in the Urals. Why would the USSR need raw materials from tiny countries in its orbit? But again, if you don't believe me, you're free to read about it. This is a history community, not a "let's make up reality without sources" community. I provided you sources.
Because there was an evolution between 1946 and 1990? It seems fairly obvious.
Russia stole all the western industry and replaced it with its own inferior tools.
Stalin actually wasn't a wonderful philanthropist. Sorry.
I provided you sources with NUMERICAL DATA contradicting your statements directly. Until you prove otherwise with evidence, don't continue this conversation. This is a community about history, not vibes-based analysis.
You didn't actually. But whatever.