this post was submitted on 07 Jan 2026
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You guys are all much more well-read on communism than me, so I ask based on this quote:

As a reminder, the Sino-Soviet split occurred due to an ideological fracture in the Communist bloc whereby Mao accused the Soviets of being “revisionists” after Khrushchev’s de-Stalinization and his embrace of “peaceful coexistence” with the West.

Now that the ex-Soviet countries are pretty much all capitalist oligarchies and China is, well whatever it is but hugely successful and prosperous, is there a consensus about the Sino-Soviet split? I mean yea it sucks that it had to go down like that but can we say in general that Mao was right about that?

I know it's just an arbitrary point in time (as now) and that there were and are loads of factors at play so this is perhaps a simplistic way of framing it, but I'd love to get your thoughts on the matter. Every time I ask something of the dope-ass bear I'm blown away not just by how little I know but also that I wasn't even looking in the right direction, so if this is a stupid question I'm sure you'll let me know, lol.

EDIT: Thank you very much for your answers! Very informative.

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[–] godisidog@hexbear.net 5 points 4 days ago (2 children)

Should China have also de-Stalinized in the 1950s then?

[–] lil_tank@hexbear.net 28 points 4 days ago

False dilemma, China did not have to support reactionaries around the globe to defend Marxism-Leninism at home

[–] Keld@hexbear.net 13 points 4 days ago (1 children)

Are you implying that China didn't de-stalinize? But even then, you don't oppose revisionism by turning around and supporting actual anti communism, that's not even coherent.

[–] godisidog@hexbear.net 5 points 4 days ago

Decades later, yeah.

I guess my point is that China's initial motivation to split is legitimate, regardless of their poor policy later.