this post was submitted on 28 Dec 2025
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[โ€“] GrammarPolice@lemmy.world 2 points 4 months ago (1 children)

Same. I wonder why this is posted; by the owner of this comm no less

[โ€“] kip@piefed.zip 7 points 4 months ago* (last edited 4 months ago)

it's because of the plato / diogenes thing. 'featherless biped' works as a description of man but not as a definition

here's some knowledgeable-sounding nerd's writeup about it: https://old.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/qsw3bw/did_diogenes_really_run_into_platos_academy_with/

he reckons plato did say

we should have begun at first by dividing land animals into biped and quadruped; and since the winged herd, and that alone, comes out in the same class with man, should divide bipeds into those which have feathers and those which have not [etc etc]

but it's not known if diogenes really did charge into one of his classrooms with a plucked chicken to prove him wrong