What made "new continent" countries (USA, Brazil) outnumber the population of their former European colonizer ? (jlai.lu)

submitted 1 year ago by poudlardo@jlai.lu to c/askhistorians@lemmy.world

5 comments fedilink hide all child comments

I mean, European countries' history is rich of thousands of years, whereas first European footsteps in America are 5 centuries old (I know there were natives before all that, but were they that many?).

you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments

[-] elbarto777@lemmy.world 5 points 1 year ago

In theory, if the colonizers hadn't arrived, the indigenous population could have reached the same numbers today. So, it has nothing to do with colonizers being outnumbered by the colonized. Just bigger country side in warm lands = more people.

[-] poudlardo@jlai.lu 1 points 1 year ago

Glad you said in warm lands. True that Canada and Russia didn't reach the same amount of people even with their bigger size

[-] elbarto777@lemmy.world 2 points 1 year ago

Plus there were a lot of people on this side of the world, but they were decimated by diseases brought in from Europe.

this post was submitted on 15 Aug 2023

22 points (95.8% liked)

AskHistorians

643 readers

2 users here now

founded 1 year ago

MODERATORS

karmabot@lemmy.world